Question about spells... Options

[psionghost]

From the way it is worded, you cannot interpret it that way, regarldess of anything, because it specifically states it does not work that way. Even if the base rules said it did, the spell, by specifically stating otherwise, would be an exception to those rules.

Even further, you have even acknowledged that astral perception is not a visual sense - so even if it was not specifically excluded from working in the spell description, it still would not hide your aura from astral perception.

Right, I know what you mean and i'm just saying that, how under Illusion spells it says it affects the mind of the person was all, and since the mind processes all perception and information astral, physical or not is what I meant. And because of my original question asked if it did in anyway. Which you cleared up for me, I wasn't expecting this topic to get out of context or turn into any type of wish-wash back and forth between us.

All i was pointing out that between the two texts, Illusion description and Spell description stated it affects the mind and as I posted above here, how information and perception is processed, regardless of game terms. I was looking at it from different point of view was all.

[Oracle]

The spell description does not leave any room for interpretation. You cannot use the invisibility spell to hide from astral sight. Right, the spell affects the mind. But everything it does is to tell the mind of bystanders, that it does not see the spell's target. It is still only an invisibility spell. Since astral perception is not based on sight, there is no effect of this spell on an astrally perceiving person.