SirPentor
May 6 2008, 04:28 PM
Let's say three critters are creeping up on you and you see two of them. You cast Power Ball (an area spell) in place that would get all three of them (by chance--remember, you only see two of them). Does the third one get hit? The guidance from the rule book is this:
"All visible targets within the area are affected"
Right now we are saying that 'visible' means 'not invisible', not that it means 'seen by you'. So if the baddy is invisible, it isn't effected, but if you just don't happen to see it, it is effected.
Thoughts.
ZenGamer
May 6 2008, 04:38 PM
Agreed. Any target that you cannot see is not affected even if it is within the area of effect - for DIRECT spells anyway, including Manaball, Stunball, etc.
For INDIRECT spells like Fireball or Ball Lightning, all targets within the area of effect are hit unless they are behind walls or the like.
Stahlseele
May 6 2008, 05:24 PM
ah, yes, magic . . able to bend the laws of physics until they break . . able to manipulate the strongest of minds . . stopable by a sheet of paper between you and him and you throwing pebbles at him . .
Aaron
May 6 2008, 05:27 PM
That's why God gave us indirect combat spells.
CanRay
May 6 2008, 05:58 PM
That's why Mages can carry Tear Gas grenades to throw into the window, and let all the targets come running out.
Leofski
May 6 2008, 06:29 PM
If (for whatever reason) an individual is within "line of sight" and the area of affect of a direct spell, but has not or cannot be seen by the caster (due to the concealment power, invisibility spells or ruthenium polymer for instance) are they affected?
Malicant
May 6 2008, 06:34 PM
No.
hobgoblin
May 6 2008, 07:06 PM
astral perception can take care of two of those iirc...
Leofski
May 6 2008, 07:31 PM
Astral perception can deal with them, but not all spellcasters have it.
hobgoblin
May 6 2008, 09:28 PM
those mystical adepts i guess
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