@nezumi
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A quicker comparison than prison violence is rape. Rape is perpetrated just as easily if not more easily without a firearm, so if firearm availability is the driving factor in homicide, but no such factor exists in rape, then rape rates should be at least comparable. A quick check to wiki gives us numbers:
Yes, but rape is very dependent on definition.
One example is rape by fraud/deception. Something like that does not exist for example in germany.
(The same thing applys to murder, only it is not that extrem. For example if you look at murders in the US and Germany I would check the numbers of manslaughter, too. It might just be that a lot "would be a murder in the US" are found under that name.)
QUOTE ("Gun Control's Twisted Outcome")
The murder rates of the U.S. and U.K. are also affected by differences in the way each counts homicides. The FBI asks police to list every homicide as murder, even if the case isn't subsequently prosecuted or proceeds on a lesser charge, making the U.S. numbers as high as possible. By contrast, the English police "massage down" the homicide statistics, tracking each case through the courts and removing it if it is reduced to a lesser charge or determined to be an accident or self-defense, making the English numbers as low as possible.
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Contrast this with homicides for NYC at the time:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:NYC_murders.PNG to establish a baseline (looks like around 400 for 1926). I apologize we can't do per capita on each. I didn't have time to dig deeper, so this is what I have 'off the cuff' for NYC. However, we can calculate the per capita, since we know the population of NYC to be 7M in 1930. 400 homicides, 3M people, gives us 133 homicides per 1 million people (contrast again with England/Wales' 8.3). This is a HUGE gap. At this time, all of the areas in question had near identical firearm laws (i.e., none).Yet NYC killed round about 20 times more people in a year.
This is also a often made mistake.
A law has (close to) no effect if the baseline is low already, true (Partly because the police might not even borther to enforce it). But the other side of the coind is not true. Abolishing the law later on will not have a small effect too.
The best example for that are drug laws.
Lets just take dope for example. Before the laws were passed, there was not much consumption of marihuana. But this does not mean it won't spike if you lift the ban.
In any case I do not thing that gunlaws prevent or encourage crimes. There won't be less crime if there are less guns, and there won't be more if there are more guns.
For example we had a "school massacre" in germany reacently. Some mentally deranged teenage girl attacked her school with gasoline and a hand axe.
Casualties: 0.
Wounded: 0.
If you think of Brenda Ann Spencer you see the differance. Having no gun, does not stop you in any case (there might be some cases in which having no fitting weapon at hand is a deterrent)
The differance are the casualties.
An Axe might be very effectiv in killing a lot of zombies which are ganging up on you (if you have the physical prowess), but it is not a fitting weapon for storming your highschool (if you have not).
So what does this mean for shadowrun?
We have to consider the following:
History of the country you apply the laws to and the governing force.
How smart is the guy in command and how tight does he run his show.
So I guess everywhere Lofyr has is claws on will be very restricted.
An other big point is, that checking people for weapons and tagging them if they have any is so easy to do in Shadowrun.
This actually removes the whole "criminals will still have guns" point of the argument. The only way to carry a gun with out getting picked up by the police would be to carry it with a permit. If there are no permits... (But this point plays very much to the corner of "what is shadowrun like if you really apply the technology suggested in the books)